1. The condition of the body that enables an individual to use their body in activities requiring strength, muscular endurance, cardiovascular endurance, and flexibility, is known as:
A.wellness
B.health
C.physical fitness
D.total well being


2.
R-1 1.1.1

Which of the following is correct concerning the Wellness Pyramid?
A.how we act, function, and perform during our everyday lives does not have that much impact on fitness/wellness
B.self-responsibility has marginal impact on fitness/well-being
C.exercise and proper nutrition make up the foundation of the Wellness Pyramid
D.stress management is not a part of this concept



3.
R-1 1.1.1

As an occupational group, law enforcement has a ________ health profile.
A.good
B.poor
C.average
D.American



4. In our life we must obtain and maintain a balance of "three basic needs" two of which are aerobic exercise and emotional equilibrium. What is the third basic need not included above:
A.low carbohydrate diet
B.nutri-system or similar eating plan
C.positive eating plan
D.low carbohydrate/ low fat diet with some fasting


5. The "Wellness Pyramid" starts with a foundation of:
A.weight control
B.nutrition
C.exercise
D.stress management


6. Police professionalism became a major issue in ____________.
A.the late 40s
B.the late 50s
C.the late 60's
D.the late 70's
2.1.1


7. A study of 289 agencies in 1986 on entry-level educational requirements, reported that ____________.
A.0.9 percent had no minimum educational requirement
B.84.8 percent had a high school or G.E.D. requirement
C.0.6 percent required a four-year baccalaureate degree
D.all of the above
2.1.1


8. In ______ the Texas Legislature enacted legislation that created the Commission.

A.1962
B.1965
C.1972
D.1975
2.1.3


9. A person under section 211.27. Reporting Responsibilities of Individuals, must also report to the commission the final disposition of the criminal action within ________ of the effective date of the disposition.

A.30 days
B.60 days,
C.90 days,
D.1 year
2.1.4




10. Under 217.1. Minimum Standards for Initial Licensure a person must ______________.
A.be prohibited by state or federal law from operating a motor vehicle
B.show no trace of drug dependency or illegal drug use after a physical examination, blood test, or other medical test
C.not be subjected to a background investigation and be interviewed prior to appointment by representatives of the appointing authority;
D.be prohibited by state or federal law from possessing firearms or ammunition
2.1.4



11. A peace officer appointed to the officer's first supervisory position must receive in-service training on supervision during the _________ period after the date of that appointment.

A.12-month
B.24-month
C.36-month
D.48-month
2.1.4


12. A minimum standard for the annual handguns firearms proficiency course of fire under Rule- 217.21 shall include:
A.at least 5 rounds of duty ammunition
B.at least 10 rounds of duty ammunition
C.at least 15 rounds of duty ammunition
D.at least 25 rounds of duty ammunition


13. A minimum standard for the annual firearms proficiency course of fire under Rule- 217.21 rifle qualifications shall include __________________________________.
A.a minimum of 20 rounds of duty ammunition fired at a range of at least 75 yards
B.a minimum of 25 rounds of duty ammunition fired at a range of at least 75 yards
C.a minimum of 20 rounds of duty ammunition fired at a range of at least 100 yards
D.a minimum of 25 rounds of duty ammunition fired at a range of at least 100 yards
2.1.4


14. The minimum standards for the annual firearms proficiency course of fire under Rule- 217.21 , fully automatic weapons, shall

A.include the wearing of hat for protection
B.include two magazine changes
C.include at least two timed reloads
D.include at least one timed reload
2.1.4



15. Statistics related to law enforcement in Texas from June 2000 data
Number of active peace officer licenses: _________________

A.32,750
B.51,302
C.65,203
D.74,201
2.1.5



16. The _________ was the nighttime system of policing .
A.Watch
B.Ward
C.City Marshal
D.Sheriff
2.1.1


17. Which of the following is not a characteristic of professionalism? 3.1.2
A.continuing education
B.assessment of client needs
C.little or no standards for entry
D.standards for ethical conduct


18.
R-2 3.1.2

One of the advantages of the professional model for law enforcement is: 3.1.2
A.it limits entry into the work force from the poor because of the limited educational opportunities
B.stronger community support and respect
C.higher salaries for job occupants
D.the costs of training and development



19.
R-3 3.2.2

Which of the following statements is true? 3.2.2
A.ethical problems are easy to identify
B.it is not important to live our personal lives practicing honesty and integrity - we can change our roles of personal vs. professional
C.a peace officers actions affect only those inside the criminal justice system
D.peer pressure can work for or against ethical behavior



20.
R-3 3.2.2

The ___________________ is performed by being objective and ethical in personal behavior and in functioning as a representatives of the criminal justice system. 3.2.2
A.ethical role
B.professional role
C.paramilitary role
D.law enforcement role



21. The Fourth Amendment to the Constitution: (3.1.1-C)
A.Establishes the separation of powers
B.Protects citizens from unreasonable searches and seizures
C.Protects citizens from being compelled to be witnesses against themselves
D.Provides for the Writ of Habeas Corpus


22. The Fifth Amendment to the Constitution provides which of the following protections: [3.1.1-D]
A.Freedom of the press
B.Probable cause for arrests
C.Right to a jury trial
D.Freedom from double jeopardy


23. Which amendment to the constitution gives citizens the right to an attorney during criminal proceedings? (3.1.1-E)
A.Fourth Amendment
B.Fifth Amendment
C.Tenth Amendment
D.Sixth Amendment


24. A religion that worships the Dallas Cowboys Football team as idols cannot be prohibited by the government because of the First Amendment. (3.1.1-B)
A.True
B.False


25. The Fourteenth Amendment to the Constitution guarantees: (3.1.1-G)
A.freedom of the press
B.excessive bails
C.due process of law
D.probable cause


26.
R-4 4.1.3

Article 3 of the Constitution is important because:
A.it establishes the procedure for the election of the President and Vice-President
B.it establishes our freedom of religion
C.it establishes the right to counsel for any person
D.it creates the Supreme Court of the U.S. and defines its jurisdiction



27. Amendment 8 of the U.S. Constitution establishes:
A.the right to a speedy trial
B.right against self-incremenation
C.right against cruel or unusual punishment
D.freedom of the press


28.
R-4 4.1.3

There is only one crime defined in the U.S. Constitution. What is it?
A.murder of the President
B.lying to Congress
C.treason
D.burning the Flag



29. One of the major differences between the federal Bill of Rights and the State of Texas Bill of Rights is:
A.Texas does not have a due process amendment
B.Texas has a section on the commitment of persons of unsound mind
C.the U.S. Bill of Rights has no Writ of Habeous Corpus
D.Texas has no right to keep and bear arms


30.
R-5 4.1.5

An example of an unreasonable seizure as defined in the 4th Amendment to the Constitution would be the case of:
A.Miranda vs. Arizona
B.Monroe vs. Pape
C.Tennessee vs. Garner
D.Williams vs. Texas



31.
R-6 4.1.6

An example of the 5th Amendment right to protection against self-incrimination is the case of:
A.Miranda vs. Arizona
B.Monroe vs. Pape
C.Tennessee vs. Garner
D.Williams vs. Texas



32.
R-7 4.1.7

Which of the following is not protected by the 6th Amendment to the Constitution?
A.double jeopardy
B.right to counsel
C.right to a speedy and public trial
D.confronting one's accusers through cross examination



33.
R-8 4.1.8

The 8th Amendment to the Constitution guarantees:
A.freedom from unreasonable searches
B.right to counsel
C.right against self-incrimination
D.right against cruel or unusually punishment



34. Which of the following is provided for in the 9th Amendment to the Constitution?
A.those powers not delegated to the U.S., nor prohibited by the Constitution to the States, are reserved to the States (the Police Powers)
B.freedom from excessive bail
C.the right to a speedy and public trial
D.the enumeration of certain rights in the Constitution shall not be construed to deny or disparage others retained by the people (individual rights)


35. A Municipal Court is a function of the ______ component of the Criminal Justice System.
A.police
B.courts
C.correctional system
D.legislative
5.1.1


36. The purpose of ______ is preventing harm to society.
A.criminal law
B.civil law
C.torts
D.contracts
5.1.3


37. Which of the following is not a Peace Officer in Texas? [3.2.2-B]
A.Marshalls of incorporated cities
B.Agents of the Alcoholic Beverage Commission
C.Municipal Park and Recreational Officers
D.Special Agents of the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, and Firearms


38.
R-9 6.2.2

Which of the following would not be a peace officer as defined by Article 2, Code of Criminal Procedure?
A.Inspectors of the U.S. Postal Service
B.Adjunct Police Officers
C.Rangers and Officers of the Department of Public Safety
D.Officers commissioned by the governing board of a Metropolitan Rapid Transit Authority



39.
R-10 6.2.3

If a peace officer summons a person to aid him, and that person refuses, the person is guilty of: [3.2.2-D]
A.Aiding the escape of an offender
B.Resisting a lawful order
C.No offense
D.A class C misdemeanor



40.
R-10 6.2.3

Each sheriff shall be: [3.2.2-F]
A.A minimum of 31 years of age at time of election
B.Conservator of public morals
C.Conservator of the laws of Texas
D.Conservator of the peace



41. Which of the following does not have jurisdiction in criminal actions. (3.2.3 - A)
A.County Courts at Law
B.Justice Courts
C.District Courts
D.the Texas Supreme Court


42.
R-11 6.5.6

You have probable cause to believe that a well known bank robber has written plans to rob a bank in his diary. You may: [3.2.9-B]
A.Seize the diary as this is an instrument of a crime
B.Obtain a search warrant based on his reputation and seize it
C.Search warrant requirements can be waived and the diary seized
D.No search warrant can be issued
E.Obtain a search warrant for contraband and seize the diary



43.
R-11 6.5.6

You have probable cause to believe that weapons prohibited by the Penal Code are kept in a file cabinet in the editors office of the local newspaper. You may: [3.2.9-B]
A.Obtain a search warrant and seize the cabinet
B.Obtain a search warrant and arrest the editor
C.Obtain a search warrant and seize the weapons
D.No search warrant may be issued



44.
R-11 6.5.6

A search warrant runs for: [3.2.9-E]
A.30 days
B.5 days excluding the day it was issued
C.3 days excluding the day it was issued and the day it is executed
D.There is no time limit



45. Which of the following is NOT a duty of a peace officer investigating a family violence allegation as established by Art. 5.04 of the Code of Criminal Procedure?
A.Protect any potential victim
B.Enforce the law
C.Make lawful arrests of violators
D.Mediate the conflict


46.
R-12 6.5.7

A __________ is the written statement of a grand jury accusing a person therein named of some act or omission which, by law, is declared to be an offense.
A.information
B.complaint
C.indictment
D.writ



47.
R-12 6.5.7

A __________ is the written statement filed and presented in behalf of the State by the district or county attorney charging the defendant with an offense which may by law be so prosecuted.
A.information
B.complaint
C.indictment
D.writ



48.
R-13 6.5.5

When a warrant of arrest is issued by any mayor or recorder of an incorporated town or city, it usually can be executed: (3.2.6-E)
A.Anywhere in the United States
B.Anywhere in Texas
C.In the county in which it was issued
D.In an adjacent county
E.Only at the location specified on the warrant      



49.
R-13 6.5.5

An arrest in Texas may be made:
A.Between sunrise and sunset on Class "C" charges
B.Anytime
C.You need additional information to correctly answer this question.
D.Only during the time specified in a warrant



50.
R-13 6.5.5

The affidavit made before the Magistrate, District Attorney, or County Attorney which alleges an offense is called: (3.2.6-C)
A.A warrant of arrest
B.A probable cause waiver
C.A complaint
D.An indictment



51. Which of the following would not be a Special Investigator as defined in the Code of Criminal Procedure?
A.Special Agent of the FBI
B.Inspector of the United States Postal Service
C.Railroad Peace Officers
D.Special Agents and Law Enforcement Officers of the U.S. Forest Service


52. A __________ may specify that, if a witness has in their possession, any instrument of writing or other thing desired as evidence, such evidence must be brought by the witness and produced in court. (6.5.10)
A.writ
B.subpoena duces tecum
C.information
D.indictment


53. Which of the following would not be a reason for the issuance of subpoena? 6.5.9
A.to appear before a court to testify in a criminal action
B.to appear at a habeas corpus hearing
C.at an administrative hearing
D.to appear before a grand jury


54.
R-14 6.5.4

A peace officer may arrest, without warrant, for which of the following?
A.he has probable cause to believe that the individual has violated a Protective Order and it occurs in the officers presence
B.persons found in suspicious places under suspicious circumstances that indicate that individual has committed a felony offense
C.persons who the officer has probable cause to believe have committed an assault resulting in bodily injury to another and the peace officer has probable cause to believe that there is danger of further injury
D.all of the above are situations where a peace officer may arrest without a warrant



55. Which of the following statements is true concerning arrest without a warrant as outlined in the Code of Criminal Procedure? 6.5.4
A.a peace officer, or anyone, may, without a warrant, arrest an offender when they commit any offense within their view or presence
B.a peace officer may arrest, without warrant, a person who commits any offense within the presence or view of a magistrate and the magistrate orders the officer to arrest the offender
C.when it is shown by satisfactory proof that a person has committed a felony offense and that the offender is about to escape, so that there is no time to obtain a warrant, a peace officer may pursue and arrest the individual without a warrant
D.none of the above are true statements concerning arrest without warrant


56. Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Code of Criminal Procedure?
A.To adopt measures for preventing the commission of crime
B.To insure the uniform enforcement of the laws of the State of Texas
C.To insure a fair and impartial trial
D.To bring to the investigation of each offense on the trial all the evidence tending to produce conviction or acquittal
E.All of the above are correct


57. A Capias may be executed by any: (3.2.10-B)
A.Reasonable person
B.Executor
C.Peace Officer
D.Person


58. When the defendant is arrested at night, the Texas Code of Criminal Procedure requires that he be taken before a magistrate: [3.2.6-G]
A.No sooner than daylight
B.Immediately
C.Without unnecessary delay
D.As soon as the magistrate's office is open
E.Whenever it is convenient for the officer to do so


59. Which of the following is NOT true regarding Art. 6.06 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, Prevention of Injury?
A.It is the peace officer's duty to prevent the commission of an offense against the person or property of another, including the person or property of the spouse
B.The peace officer may summon any number of citizens of his county to his aid
C.The peace officer may use only that force which is necessary to prevent the commission of the offense, and no greater
D.The officer need not protect the property of the spouse since this is community property
E.It is the peace officer's duty to prevent a person from injuring himself


60. Following an arrest, an officer may only search the area of the offenders home which:
A.is in the sight of the officer
B.under the immediate control of the suspect
C.was anywhere on the property of the suspect
D.all of the above


61. When an officer makes an arrest, he may make a ________ of a person for ________.
A.weapons search/safety
B.full search/anything
C.inventory survey/evidence
D.pat down/elements of an offense


62. A peace officer may arrest without warrant for __________ offense(s) committed in his presence or view.
A.felony
B.misdemeanor
C.any
D.civil


63. Holding a person for a limited time, but who is not yet answerable to a criminal offense, is an example of:
A.probable cause
B.custody
C.stop & frisk
D.temporary detention


64. The landmark federal case on stop & frisk was:
A.Miranda vs. Arizona
B.Riddick vs. New York
C.Terry vs. Ohio
D.Aguilar vs. Texas


65. Chimel vs. California involved searches of:
A.abandoned property
B.the arm's reach area near an arrestee
C.automobile glove compartments
D.frisks of suspicious persons


66. Abandoned property:
A.can be held as evidence only if it's contraband
B.can be held as evidence only if directly connected to a crime
C.is always open to police as evidence
D.is never admissible in court


67. No warrant is required:
A.to search a private residence
B.to search locked luggage in the trunk of a car
C.if valid consent is given to search
D.to search a garage attached to a residence


68. Shoplifters may be arrested:
A.only by security guards
B.only by police officers
C.only by store employees
D.by any citizen


69. What is the sole purpose of the frisk?
A.to protect the safety of the officer or other persons
B.to discover illegal weapons
C.to detect criminal offenses
D.to protect the civil rights of the person to be free from unreasonable searches


70. COERCION means a threat, however communicated. Which of the following would not be coercion?
A.preventing another from acquiring information likely to affect his judgment in a transaction
B.to accuse a person of any offense
C.to expose a person to hatred, contempt, or ridicule
D.to take or withhold action as a public servant, or to cause a public servant to take or withhold action
E.all of the above are coercion


71. When a person causes the penetration of the anus or female sexual organ of another person who is not the spouse of the actor by any means, without that person's consent, they have committed the offense of:
A.Assault
B.Sexual Assault
C.Aggravated Sexual Assault
D.Rape


72. Joe Blow is wet and cold. To escape the weather, he forces his way into a closed business by breaking out a window (damage is $50). Blow should be charged with:
A.Burglary (Felony 2nd Degree)
B.Burglary (Felony 1st Degree)
C.Criminal Mischief (Class A Misdemeanor)
D.Criminal Trespass (Class B Misdemeanor)


73. Punishable by life in prison or death
A.Capitol Felony
B.1st Degree Felony
C.2nd Degree Felony
D.3rd Degree Felony
E.State Jail Felony


74. What is the primary difference between robbery and theft?
A.the value of the item taken
B.the fact that property was taken from a residence rather than a business
C.the type of entry used
D.the use or attempted use of force


75. Bob pats Sweet Thing on the rump. Bob knows she might be a little offended but is surprised when she slaps him silly. Bob's actions might result in what charge being filed (Sweet Thing suffered no pain or injury).
A.Assault (Class A)
B.Assault (Class C)
C.Disorderly Conduct (Gesture)
D.No charge may be filed


76. A person agrees with one or more persons to commit a felony; plus an overt act by one or more of them in pursuance of the agreement is committed. This constitutes:
A.Criminal Attempt
B.Criminal Conspiracy
C.Criminal Solicitation
D.All of the above
E.Both A & B are correct


77. Eddie Murphy shoplifts a video cassette of "Beverly Hills Cop" worth $18.50. While trying to leave the store where the theft occurred, Murphy is confronted by Billy, the store security guard. Murphy strikes Billy in the face, knocking him to the ground and causing Billy to suffer a black eye. Murphy then runs to the parking lot where he is apprehended by Serge, the other security guard. Murphy should be charged with what offense?
A.Assault (Class A)
B.Theft (Class C)
C.Robbery
D.Aggravated Robbery


78. Mack intentionally strikes Sam in the head and shoulders with a nightstick. The incident took place in the jail where Mack was booking Sam in. Sam did nothing to provoke Mack except speak poorly about Mack's family heritage. What offense has occurred?
A.Official Misconduct
B.Official Oppression
C.Violation of Civil Rights of Prisoner
D.No offense has occurred - Sam got what he deserved


79. Which one of the following defenses is not considered to be a valid defense in a criminal proceeding?
A.Duress
B.Mistake of fact
C.Intoxication
D.Entrapment


80. ____________ means any device designed, made, or adapted to expel a projectile through a barrel by using the energy generated by an explosion or burning substance.
A.Explosive weapon
B.Firearm
C.Handgun
D.Machine gun


81. Causation is the link between the ________ and the ________.
A.mental state - act
B.act - harmful result
C.offense - penalty
D.victim - suspect


82. Joe, the village bum, finds an expired Master Card in the garbage. He knows the card is expired (and not his) but uses it to purchase a bottle of imported ripple. Joe is guilty of:
A.Theft (3rd Degree Felony)
B.Theft (Class A Misdemeanor)
C.Credit Card Abuse
D.Fraud


83. Effective consent means:
A.consent induced by threat
B.consent by a person legally authorized to act for the owner
C.consent solely to detect the commission of an offense
D.both B & C
E.none of the above


84. Habitation includes all of the following except:
A.a structure adapted for overnight accommodation of a person
B.a vehicle adapted for overnight accommodation of a person
C.any structure or enclosure designed specifically and only for commercial use
D.each separately secure, or occupied, portion of a structure or building
E.both B & D would not be considered a habitation


85. Allan is drunk and driving a motor vehicle. He strikes Tiny Tim, killing Tim, as Tim is tip-toeing through the intersection of Tulip & Vine. Allan may be charged with:
A.Murder
B.Capital Murder
C.Manslaughter
D.Intoxication Manslaughter


86.
R-15 3.3.11 A

Which of the following would not constitute Capital Murder (assuming a person commits murder as defined in the Penal Code)?
A.Murder of a fireman acting in performance of an official duty
B.Murder during the commission of felony criminal mischief
C.Murder during the commission of arson
D.Murder for remuneration or promise of remuneration
E.Murder of a peace officer acting in performance of an official duty



87.
R-15 3.3.11 A

A person who recklessly causes the death of an individual may be charged with:
A.Murder
B.Manslaughter
C.Intoxication Manslaughter
D.Capitol Murder
E.Criminally Negligent Homicide



88. All persons are presumed to be innocent until proven guilty, and no person may be convicted of an offense unless each element of the offense is proven. The burden of proof required for a conviction is:
A.Suspicion
B.Reasonable suspicion
C.Reasonable doubt
D.Proof beyond a reasonable doubt
E.Preponderance of the evidence


89.
R-16 3.3.2

Proof of a higher degree of culpability than that charged constitutes proof of the culpability needed for conviction of the offense charged.
A.True
B.False



90.
R-15 3.3.11 A

The form of criminal homicide normally occurring during a fit of blind rage or sudden passion is:
A.Murder
B.Capitol Murder
C.Manslaughter
D.Intoxication Manslaughter
E.Criminally Negligent Homicide



91. "Public Place" includes all of the following except:
A.streets
B.highways
C.the common area of a school
D.an apartment


92. Mr. Bill decides to break into a hardware store. He forces his way into the building and begins to collect items he intends to take. Officer Hand arrives and captures Mr. Bill, who also has a handgun in his belt. Mr. Bill did not have the effective consent of the owner (Mr. Sluggo) to be in the store. The most serious offense Bill may be charged with is:
A.Burglary (State Jail Felony)
B.Burglary (3rd Degree Felony)
C.Criminal Trespass (Class A Misdemeanor)
D.Unlawful Carrying Weapon


93. Willie has been sniffing glue. He behavior is such that it suggests he is under the influence of the glue (an intoxicant) in that he now is running down the middle of Easy St. acting like King Kong. Willie should be charged with:
A.Public Lewdness
B.Public Intoxication
C.Invest of Lunacy
D.Cruelty to Animals


94. C.B. knowingly carries on the front seat of his car a switch blade knife. C.B. should be charged with:
A.Possession of Prohibited Weapon
B.Unlawfully Carrying a Weapon
C.Possession of Weapon by Felon
D.No charge


95. Punishable by up to one year in jail,; a $4,000 fine; and/or both such fine and imprisonment
A.State Jail Felony
B.Class A Misdemeanor
C.Class B Misdemeanor
D.Class C Misdemeanor


96. Punishable by a fine only of up to $500
A.State Jail Felony
B.Class A Misdemeanor
C.Class B Misdemeanor
D.Class C Misdemeanor


97. Punishable by a fine not to exceed $2,000, confinement in jail for not more than 180 days, or both such fine and confinement.
A.Class A Misdemeanor
B.Class B Misdemeanor
C.Class C Misdemeanor
D.State Jail Felony


98. Punishable by imprisonment for 2 - 20 years in the institutional division; in addition to, may be fined up to $10,000.
A.Capitol Felony
B.1st Degree Felony
C.2nd Degree Felony
D.3rd Degree Felony
E.State Jail Felony


99. A person commits an offense if, with intent to harass another, he sends them a letter containing suggestions of sexual acts they are to perform together (and which the recipient consider obscene). This person has committed:
A.disorderly conduct
B.harassment
C.false alarm or report
D.desecration of venerated object


100. Short barrel firearm means a rifle with a barrel less than _______ inches or a shotgun barrel length of less than ________ inches.
A.12/24
B.10/12
C.20/26
D.16/18


101. ____________________ means three or more persons having a common identifying sign or symbol, or who are regularly associated in the commission of criminal activities.
A.Mafia
B.Organized crime syndicate
C.Criminal street gang
D.Outlaw biker gang


102. Mr. A decides to rob a store. Acting with intent to commit the offense, A points a pistol at the store owner and fires. The owner dies as a result of Mr. A shooting him. Mr. A may be charged with:
A.Involuntary Manslaughter
B.Voluntary Manslaughter
C.Murder
D.Capitol Murder


103. A person who fails to perform an act commits an offense if:
A.There was a moral duty to act
B.He was a police officer
C.There was a statutory duty to act
D.The act was fundamentally wrong


104. A person who pays a witness to go to Miami on the day the witness was legally summoned to court proceedings in Beaumont may be charged with:
A.Bribery
B.Coercing Public Servant or Voter
C.Improper Influence
D.Witness Tampering
E.Interfering with Public Servant


105.
R-17 3.3.21

Elwood Blues' brother, Jake, has a warrant out for his arrest for robbery. Elwood, being the good brother that he is, calls Jake at his girlfriend's home to warn him that the police are on their way over to arrest Jake. What offense, if any, has occurred?
A.Evading Arrest or Detention
B.Hindering Apprehension or Prosecution
C.Escape
D.Permitting or Facilitating Escape
E.Interference with Duties of Public Servants



106.
R-17 3.3.21

A person who by means of threat influences or attempts to influence a public servant in a specific exercise of his official power or a specific performance of his official duty has committed:
A.Bribery
B.Coercing Public Servant or Voter
C.Improper Influence
D.Tampering
E.No offense has occurred



107.
R-17 3.3.21

Granny threatens to "punch out" the dog catcher because he testified against her in court for violation of the city's barking dog ordinance. Granny may be charged with:
A.Assault (Class A Misdemeanor)
B.Assault (3rd Degree Felony)
C.Retaliation
D.Coercion of Public Servant or Voter
E.None of the above



108.
R-18 3.3.26

A person commonly referred to as a "pimp" finds clients for a female who receives pay for sexual favors. The female pays the "pimp" a percentage for furnishing the customers. What offense has the "pimp" committed?
A.Compelling Prostitution
B.Aggravated Promotion of Prostitution
C.Promoting Prostitution
D.Prostitution
E.None; this is free enterprise at work



109.
R-18 3.3.26

A person commits the offense of ____________ if, knowing the character and content thereof, he employs, authorizes, or induces a child younger than 18 years of age to engage in a sexual conduct or a sexual performance.
A.Prostitution
B.Aggravated Prostitution
C.Sexual Assault
D.Aggravated Sexual Assault
E.Sexual Performance by a Child



110. If the loss due to theft is less than $1500, but $500 or more, the grade of theft is:
A.Class B Misdemeanor
B.Class A Misdemeanor
C.3rd Degree Felony
D.Class C Misdemeanor
E.None of the above


111.
R-19 3.3.16 A

When a person causes an explosion with intent to damage a vehicle to collect insurance money, which offense has occurred?
A.Criminal Mischief (3rd Degree Felony)
B.Terroristic Threat
C.Arson
D.Theft
E.No offense - this is a civil matter



112.
R-19 3.3.16 A

While walking by a parked vehicle, a man notices a watch lying on the dash. The windows are all down so he does not have to force his way into the vehicle. He reaches through the open window and takes the watch. What offense has been committed.
A.Robbery
B.Burglary of vehicle
C.Criminal Trespass
D.Theft (3rd Degree Felony)
E.Theft (Class A Misdemeanor)



113. An adult who exposes himself, knowing that a 13 year old is present, with intent to arouse or gratify the sexual desire of any person may be charged with:
A.Sexual Abuse of a Child
B.Indecency with a Child
C.Public Lewdness
D.Disorderly Conduct (Class B)
E.Indecent Exposure


114.
R-20 3.3.11 C

Engaging in an act of sexual intercourse in a public place is:
A.Indecent Exposure
B.Public Lewdness
C.A deviate sexual act
D.Obscene Display or Distribution
E.No offense



115. "Reasonable Belief" means a belief that would be held by an ordinary and prudent __________ in the same circumstances as the actor.
A.Person
B.Police officer
C.Attorney
D.Judge


116. Vic, a local salesman, refuses to leave a business after being informed to leave by the owner. What offense has Vic committed?
A.Criminal Trespass (Class A Misdemeanor)
B.Criminal Trespass (Class B Misdemeanor)
C.Disorderly Conduct (Class C Misdemeanor)
D.Fail to Obey a Lawful Order
E.No offense has been committed


117.
R-21 3.3.16 B

Rocky J. Squirrel goes into a dressing room of a department store, puts a sweater on underneath his coat, and walks out without paying for the sweater. What offense has occurred?
A.Burglary
B.Robbery
C.Shoplifting
D.Theft



118. It is a defense to prosecution that the actor through mistake formed a reasonable belief about a matter of fact if his mistaken belief negated the kind of culpability required for commission of the offense. This is:
A.Mistake of Fact
B.Mistake of Law
C.Insanity
D.Duress
E.Intoxication


119. The offense of unlawfully carrying a weapon on any premises licenses or issued a permit by this State for the sale of service of alcoholic beverage is a:
A.1st degree felony
B.2nd degree felony
C.3rd degree felony
D.Class A misdemeanor


120.
R-22 3.3.11 D

A person who has custody, care, or control of a child younger than ______ years commits an offense if he or she intentionally abandons the child in any place under circumstances that expose a child to an unreasonable risk of harm.
A.10
B.13
C.14
D.15
E.17



121.
R-22 3.3.11 D

Romeo gives Juliet (an adult) an aphrodisiac - a drug which stimulates sexual desires - without her knowledge. Juliet is so overwhelmed that she has sexual intercourse with Romeo even though she had always refused his advances before. Romeo may be charged with:
A.Assault
B.Aggravated Assault
C.Sexual Assault
D.Aggravated Sexual Assault
E.No offense has occurred



122. At trial on a narcotics arrest a policeman testifies with intent to deceive and under oath that he had a reliable informant who gave him probable cause for a search warrant. He had no informant and the statement could have affected the outcome of the trial. The officer may be charged with:
A.Perjury
B.Aggravated perjury
C.Official misconduct
D.Official oppression


123. Jacko is wacko and likes to see the emergency lights of police cars and fire trucks responding to emergencies in progress. Knowing this, he intentionally calls the fire station and reports a fire. Jacko is guilty of:
A.False Alarm or Report
B.Harassment
C.Interference with Emergency Communications
D.No offense has occurred - that's what firemen get paid for


124. Which of the following is not one of the prepatory offenses?
A.Criminal attempt
B.Criminal conspiracy
C.Criminal responsibility
D.Criminal solicitation


125. Rod walks into the "Friendly Tavern" (premise licensed to sell alcoholic beverages) with a 10" Bowie knife strapped to his side. Rod is not a peace officer or a member of the military. Rod should be charged with:
A.Possession of Prohibited Weapon
B.Place's Weapon Prohibited
C.Unlawful Carrying Weapon (Class A Misdemeanor)
D.Unlawful Carrying Weapon (3rd Degree Felony)
E.None of the above


126. Dirty Don, an adult, compels Betty, the baby sitter, to submit to sexual intercourse by threatening the Baby's life. Betty is 16, unmarried, and a virgin. Dirty Don may be charged with:
A.Assault
B.Sexual Assault
C.Aggravated Sexual Assault
D.Desecration of a Venerated Object


127. Joe abducts the son of the District Court judge. Joe calls the judge, the boy speaks with his daddy, then Joe says "Just think of what could happen if Harry Smith (Joe's brother) is convicted in your court." Joe then releases the boy unhurt at a church. The most serious offense is:
A.False Imprisonment
B.Kidnapping
C.Aggravated Kidnapping
D.Extortion
E.Abduction


128. A person intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly carries on or about his person a handgun, illegal knife, or club. What offense would he be charged with?
A.Prohibited Weapons
B.Possession of Weapon by Felon
C.Unlawful Carrying Weapons
D.No charge may be filed


129. A vehicle is legally parked if it is ____ inches from the curb.
A.6
B.12
C.18
D.24


130. On a two way roadway, no vehicle shall be driven on the left side of the roadway, between _____ feet of an intersection, bridge, or tunnel in an incorporated city.
A.100
B.300
C.500
D.1500


131. On passenger vehicles, the maximum extension to the left is _______, and to the right is ________.
A.6" & 3"
B.7" & 11"
C.3" & 6"
D.None of the above


132. No more than ________ driving lamps may be lighted at any one time while the vehicle is in operation.
A.4
B.6
C.2
D.5


133. The boundary lines of a highway are:
A.The entire width between the boundary lines publicly maintained when any part is used for vehicular travel
B.The improved portion used for vehicular travel only
C.From shoulder to shoulder
D.Both A & B
E.None of the above


134. Before administering a blood or breath test for alcohol concentration, the officer must read __________ to the suspect.
A.Police Officer DWI Statutory Warning
B.Miranda Warning
C.Bill of Rights
D.Nothing


135. A person commits an offense if the person is intoxicated while driving or operating a motor vehicle:
A.On a public roadway only
B.In a public place
C.On any roadway maintained by the State of Texas
D.Anywhere except a private parking lot
E.None of the above


136. A person arrested for DWI with an alcohol concentration of ________ or above is presumed to be intoxicated.
A.0.01 %
B.1.00 %
C.0.08 %
D.0.15 %


137.
R-23 TX P?O

Which of the following vehicles does not have a burden to yield the right-of-way?
A.The driver of a vehicle approaching the intersection of a street or roadway from a roadway that terminates at the intersection not otherwise regulated
B.The driver of a vehicle proceeding on an access or feeder road of a controlled-access highway
C.The driver of a vehicle intending to turn left within an intersection or into an alley, private road, or driveway
D.The driver of a vehicle intending to proceed straight through an intersection on a through highway without turning
E.None of the above



138. The maximum allowable speed on a public beach is ______ mph.
A.15
B.20
C.25
D.30
E.there are no restrictions on speed on a public beach


139. The maximum height of a vehicle is ________without a permit.
A.l2' 4"
B.14'
C.l6' 6"
D.5' 6"


140. Which of the following equipment is not necessary for control of traffic?   5.1.2
A.Whistle
B.Traffic cones
C.Flashlight
D.Asp   


141.
R-24 TX P/O

When using a whistle to stop traffic, the officer should use how many blast(s) of the whistle?
A.One long
B.Two short
C.Three short
D.Four long



142.
R-24 TX P/O

The type of vehicular circulation that is given priority right-of-way is:
A.the heaviest flow of traffic
B.trucks and buses
C.emergency vehicles
D.none of the above



143. The Act of Sexual Harassment is best described in the Texas Penal Code as:
A.Abuse of Official Capacity
B.Official Oppression
C.A nuisance to employees
D.A lack of respect for women


144.
R-25 10.2.4

A citizen has asked you to advise them of which court would always conduct proceedings concerning child custody. The proper court would be:
A.District Court
B.Justice Court
C.Court of Criminal Appeals
D.County court



145.
R-26 10.3.2

A Subpoena Duces Tecum is a subpoena to a witness that directs them to:
A.Remain on standby at home
B.Report to the Court, but will not testify
C.Pay the Court Cost of the Suit
D.To come to court as a witness and bring some physical evidence with them



146. A Writ of Possession has been directed to the Sheriff/Constable to restore the premises to the Landlord. The Sheriff/Constable may now:
A.Set all the property outside while it is raining
B.Give the tenants ample time to move after serving the notice
C.Have a Warehouseman move and store the property of the tenant
D.B & C are both correct


147. A victim of Family Violence is seeking relief and protection. She asks you which of the following court documents will give her long term protection and a penal violation for disobedience of the order. You shall select ___________ as the best for her needs.
A.Citation
B.Injunction (Temporary Restraining Order)
C.Protective Order
D.Ex-Parte Protective Order


148. The ___________ has the responsibility for removing ESTRAYS from the public roadway:
A.Sheriff
B.Constable
C.County Commissioner
D.Court Bailiff


149. To collect child support payments from uncooperative defendant, the court may order his employer to withhold money from his earnings and forward the money to the court. That type of order would be:
A.writ of execution
B.order withholding income and/or a writ of garnishment
C.writ of possession
D.writ of attachment


150.
definition of writ from Black's Law Dictionary
R-27 BLACK'S

The term 'writ' as applied to civil process documents means:
A.the verbal orders of a peace officer
B.instructions from the plaintiff's attorney
C.instructions from the defendant's attorney
D.order issued from a court requiring the performance of a specified act and gives the authority to have it done



151. A ____________ is any drug or device that is not included in schedules I thru V of the Texas Controlled Substance Act and that is unsafe for self-medication.
A.Dangerous drug
B.Amphetamine
C.Barbiturate
D.Controlled substance


152. Which of the following is a common symptom of abuse of a drug
A.redness to the inside of the hands and bloodshot eyes
B.nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
C.skin rash and loss of hair
D.there are no physical symptoms of an abuser


153. The most commonly abused illegal substance is:
A.heroin
B.marijuana
C.cocaine
D.opium


154. _________________ is a state of psychological and/or physical dependence, which results from chronic, periodic, or continuous use of a drug.
A.Addiction
B.Dependence
C.Habituation
D.Possession


155. Which of the following is not on of the six major categories of controlled substances?
A.simulated controlled substances
B.hallucinogens
C.narcotics
D.stimulants
E.all of the above are one of the six major categories of controlled substance


156.
R-28 3.10.1

____________________ refers to those negative attitudes developed by the mistake of judging another person by his appearance, age, race, religion, nationality, etc.; by rumors or by the actions of other individuals of the same group.
A.Bigotry
B.Human Relations
C.Prejudice
D.Attitude



157. A license or permit is valid for a period of ___________ from the date issued.
A.2 years
B.1 year
C.6 months
D.5 years


158. A minor may consume alcoholic beverages in the visible presence of his ___________________.
A.parents
B.court appointed guardian
C.adult spouse
D.all of the above


159. A minor, as defined by the Texas Alcoholic Beverage Code, is a person under _______ years of age.
A.14
B.17
C.19
D.21


160. Possession of more than _________ of liquor in a dry area is prima facie evidence that it is possessed with intent to sell.
A.a gallon
B.one-half gallon
C.a quart
D.a pint


161. Child means a person who is ______years of age or older and under ______years of age.
A.5, l2
B.l4, 2l
C.l0, l7
D.l5, 2l
13.2.2


162. Delinquent Conduct is conduct, including traffic offenses, that violates the Penal Laws of this State.
A.True
B.False
13.2.3


163. A person commits the offense of ____________ if, in any case a child is caused to become a delinquent or a dependent and neglected child, the person encourages by any act, causes, acts in conjunction with, or contributes to the delinquency, dependency, or neglect of the child. [3.4.9 (B)]
A.Child Abuse
B.Child in Need of Supervision
C.Delinquent Conduct
D.Contributing to Delinquency or Dependency of a Child
13.2.11


164.
R-29 3.4.1

Which of the following are listed as having authority to take a child into custody without a court order?
A.a juvenile probation officer
B.a truant officer
C.EMT personnel
D.a fireman
E.A and B
13.2.13



165.
R-29 3.4.1

Upon a law enforcement officer taking possession of a child, who is lost, that officer shall without delay
A.bring the child to the nearest courtroom to release the child to the court
B.bring the the child to the nearest hospital to check for possible injuries
C.bring the child to the parent or managing conservator
D.bring the child to the police station until a missing person report is completed and then locate a judge
13.2.13



166.
R-30 3.4.2

All reports of child abuse received by any law enforcement agency shall be referred to:
A.the Texas Department of Human Services
B.the Attorney General's Office
C.the family physician
D.the local United Way
13.2.11



167.
R-30 3.4.2

In any proceeding regarding the abuse or neglect of a child, evidence may be excluded if on the grounds of privileged communication:
A.it was with client and attorney
B.it was not given in a signed statement
C.it was not recorded on video
D.it was not an audio recording
E.none of the above
13.2.11



168. Which of the following moral considerations or forces is most likely to have the greatest influence on an officers' decision to use deadly force?
A.the law (both statutory and case)
B.the informal organization
C.departmental policy
D.the individual's conscience


169. Which of the following statements is true concerning the psychological aspects of the use of force?
A.The police role is primarily offensive in nature in a physical arrest.
B.Self-control results from confidence in one's skills through practice and training.
C.Control is a "one-way street" where only the suspect needs to be controlled.
D.The officer being in control of his emotions has no influence on his ability to control a suspect.


170. You may use ____________ to prevent someone from committing suicide.
A.deadly force
B.force
C.force or deadly force
D.none of the above may be used to prevent suicide


171. __________ is the Supreme Court case which limited when a police officer may use deadly force in a fleeing felon situation.
A.Mapp vs. Ohio
B.Terry vs. Ohio
C.Agular vs. Texas
D.Tennessee vs. Garner


172. Delinquent Conduct as defined in the Family Code is not which of the following:
A.all conduct including traffic laws
B.all conduct including penal law
C.conduct which violates an order of a juvenile court
D.unexcused absences of a child from school
E.the voluntary absence of a child from his home without the parents consent
13.2.3


173. Which of the following statements is not true?
A.a significant number of U.S. workers abuse alcohol and drugs
B.workers abuse alcohol and drugs on and off the job
C.alcohol and drug abuse endangers the health and safety of workers, coworkers, and the public
D.law enforcement is immune to alcohol and drug abuse


174.
R-31 14.2.1

Alcohol and drug abuse has had the following effect on law enforcement:
A.reduced job performance
B.absenteeism
C.abuse of sick leave
D.all of the above



175. Stressors can originate:
A.internally (at home or work)
B.externally (in the community)
C.functionally (by the nature of the work)
D.all of the above


176. When taking notes you should alternate between __________ [3.16.3 (B)]
A.Listening & writing
B.Sentences & paragraphs
C.Radio messages & the complainant
D.All of the above


177. Using __________ voice is recommended in good report writing. [3.16.5 (B)]
A.Active
B.Passive
C.None of the above
D.Loud


178. Police jargon is__________ in police reports. [3.16.5 (D20]
A.Proper
B.Improper
C.Common
D.Required


179. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a sentence?
A.it is a group of words that express a complete thought
B.the predicate tells or asks something about what the action of the thought is
C.it contains a noun, predicate, and if required by the predicate's verb, other words to that complete its meaning
D.the simple predicate is the verb of the sentence


180. A _____________ is a group of words that is only a piece of a complete sentence.
A.An incomplete thought
B.A sentence fragment
C.A predicate
D.A run on sentence


181. Most communication takes place in the ________ medium.
A.verbal
B.nonverbal
C.proxemics
D.temporal


182. You must have______ in order to know that a message has been received.
A.interaction
B.transaction
C.feedback
D.encoding


183. When we say that communication is________, we mean that it is an ongoing process where individuals are both sending and receiving messages at the same time.
A.effective
B.filtered
C.linear
D.transactional


184. Which of the following is the most common type of resistance encountered by law enforcement officers?
A.passive resistance
B.hit/kicked
C.weapon
D.pull away


185. The use of _________ is justifiable to prevent the escape of an arrested person when the force used could have been employed to effect the arrest for the offense under which the person is in custody.      
A.deadly force
B.force
C.restraints
D.firearms


186. The use of force is not justified:
A.by a grandparent to discipline a child
B.to discipline a child if the actor is entrusted with the care or supervision of the person for a special purpose and the actor reasonably believes the force is necessary to maintain discipline in a group
C.the actor is the guardian of an incompentent and believes it is necessary to show the incompetent who is in charge of their care
D.all of the above


187. __________ is the minimum amount of lawful force sufficient to achieve a legitimate police objective.
A.Force
B.Deadly force
C.Reasonable force
D.A & B
E.None of the above


188. Which of the following statements is true concerning the psychological aspects of the use of force?
A.The police role is primarily offensive in nature in a physical arrest.
B.Self-control results from confidence in one's skills through practice and training.
C.Control is a "one-way street" where only the suspect needs to be controlled.
D.The officer being in control of his emotions has no influence on his ability to control a suspect.


189. Which of the following moral considerations or forces is most likely to have the greatest influence on an officer's decision to use deadly force?
A.the law (both statutory and case)
B.the informal organization
C.departmental policy
D.the individual's conscience and values


190. Of the listed choices, which would be the highest force option (force level)?
A.impact weapon
B.verbal communication
C.professional presence
D.weaponless strategies


191. Which of the listed verbal appeals is an appeal from an officer to another person, and is based upon the officer's professional assurance of a desire for a positive outcome?
A.practical appeal
B.rational appeal
C.ethical appeal
D.personal appeal


192. Which of the following is not a reason for errors in reasoning?
A.sloppy and inaccurate information collection
B.using a systematic step-by-step approach to the problem
C.failing to spell out relationships fully
D.not observing and using all relevant facts of a problem


193. Which of the following is not a method used by good problem solvers?
A.avoids guessing
B.concerned for accuracy
C.positive attitude
D.looking at the problem as a whole rather than braking it into parts


194. Under the incident-driven (reactive) police system, police would:
A.work with citizens to correct conditions that generate problems
B.work with the public in determining what physical or social conditions create a problem
C.work with people involved in identifying what other agencies might be able to assist them in correcting the problem
D.return to the location and take offense reports as incidents continue


195. The ____________method can be very useful in problem solving. 23.2.2
A.TCLEOSE
B.CARE
C.SARA
D.GIGO


196. One of the four (4) typical reasons for errors in problem solving reasoning is:
A.too many restraints on officers mandated by court decisions
B.too few officers on the street to allow such a luxury of time use
C.Person fails to spell out relationships fully
D.officers are cynical for the most part and it is difficult to motivate them


197. Which of the following is not a step in the S.A.R.A. Model:
A.analysis
B.assessment
C.response
D.screening


198.
R-32 3.10.1

____________________ refers to those negative attitudes developed by the mistake of judging another person by his appearance, age, race, religion, nationality, etc.; by rumors or by the actions of other individuals of the same group.
A.Bigotry
B.Human Relations
C.Prejudice
D.Attitude



199. Which of the following is NOT correct?
A.People are influenced by abundant prejudices
B.Peace Officers should be impartial authorities
C.Peace Officers are the product of the same social experience as everybody else
D.Prejudice is not based on religion


200. Which of the following is NOT an attitude or feeling usually harbored by a prejudice person?
A.Propriety claims
B.Fear
C.Minorities are people too
D.Feeling of superiority


201. The act of regarding one's culture as the center of the universe is known as;
A.discrimination
B.prejudice
C.ethnocentrism
D.ethnicity


202. Which of the following statements is not true concerning the historical development of the police models or styles of the 1900 - 1940's era.
A.Law enforcement officers were usually known by the citizens in the areas in which they worked
B.the assignment of officers from walking beats to motorized (radio) units brought the officers and community closer together
C.there was no real quality evaluation of services thru this period
D.automobiles allowed a more rapid response to calls for service


203. Which of the following is not included in the definition of community policing? 26.1.3
A.it can be implemented using existing organizational structures and staffing
B.it is based on the concept of the police and citizens working together in creative ways to solve community problems
C.it requires creating a community policing officer (CPO) that can maintain face-to-face contact with citizens
D.it shifts the focus of policing from handling random calls to solving community problems


204. Which of the following statements is true concerning the historical development of police models or styles of the l950 - 1970's era. (2.1.1)
A.the patrol system became a pro-active rather than incident driven approach for police response
B.the professional model, with its emphasis on accountability and standards, developed and became the dominant style of policing
C.the use of automobiles had little or no affect on response to calls for service
D.the emphasis on follow-up activities shifted from specialized units to patrol


205. Which of the following is not descriptive of the traditional police service model. 26.1.2
A.reactive response
B.use of the criminal justice systems the primary means of resolving incidents
C.incident driven
D.pro-active response


206. On most stops, an officer should approach a violator's vehicle from the:
A.right rear
B.left rear
C.right front
D.left front


207. Upon approaching the violator's vehicle, the officer should:
A.have his citation book in his gun hand
B.have his pen in his gun hand
C.have his flashlight in his gun hand
D.have his gun hand free


208.
R-33 27.5.1

The first contact with the violator should be:
A.designed to let the violator know what traffic violation was made and that they will receive a traffic ticket.
B.designed to permit the violator the give an explanation of the driving conduct.
C.a polite greeting in which the officer makes a personal and agency identification, provides a brief explanation for the purpose of the stop, and requests the operator's driver's license and proof of insurance.
D.a lecture on the need for better driving.



209. In writing the traffic ticket, the officer should:
A.sit inside the patrol car.
B.stand with the violator between the police vehicle and the violator's vehicle.
C.place the ticket book on the hood of the patrol vehicle hood to use it as a writing platform.
D.place one foot on the vehicle bumper, providing support for the ticket book while writing a ticket.
E.stand behind the right-rear fender of the police unit and continue to observe the violator's vehicle while writing the traffic citation.


210. Which of the following is NOT one of the stages of grief that victims experience?
A.shock
B.guilt
C.vulnerability
D.depression or loneliness


211. Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning the physical response to trauma?
A.we can maintain the physical arousal associated with fight or flight indefinitely
B.you can experience "frozen flight" - disorientation and numbness
C.the physical response to trauma is based on our animal instincts
D.adrenaline begins to pump through the body


212. Which of the following statements is NOT correct concerning a person's long term crisis reaction?
A.many victims continue to re-experience crisis reactions over long periods of time
B.certain "trigger events" (such as identifying an assailant, etc.) may remind the victim of the trauma they experienced
C.all victims suffer from long term stress reactions
D.long term stress reactions usually decrease over time


213. Who is responsible for administering the Crime Victim's Compensation Act?
A.the Legislature
B.the Department of Public Safety
C.the Department of Human Services
D.the Attorney General
E.both B & C


214.
R-34 3.12.3

The Crime Victim's Compensation Act may provide assistance for a victim of:
A.Burglary of a Habitation
B.Auto Theft
C.Criminal Mischief
D.Personal injury or death as a result of preventing crime or apprehending criminals
E.All of the above



215. Which of the following is true?
A.violent incidents generally only occur once
B.batterers probably grew up in homes where they were abused or witnessed abuse
C.the parties eventually work things out and the violence disappears over time
D.after a violent incident, batterers usually blame themselves


216. When an assault occurs without negative consequences for the batterer, he:
A.eventually surrender himself to local authorities
B.usually sees he has a behavioral problem and seeks help
C.realizes that in Texas the law permits a husband to discipline a wife with unruly behavior
D.finds it easy to deny to himself and others that he did anything wrong


217. One of the characteristics of a batterer is:
A.he denies responsibility for his violent actions
B.usually tries to hide his violent factions from his children
C.generally is not himself a victim of past family violence
D.is not very possessive of his spouse because he feels she's just a slut


218. When interviewing a victim of family violence, officers should:
A.not allow the victim to ventilate, but get right to the facts of the incident
B.tell the victim the officer will leave if she does not stop crying and start cooperating
C.press the victim for an explanation of why she did what she did to provoke him
D.acknowledge her fear of future violence from the abuser and reassure her that the officers are concerned for her safety


219. A crowd develops into ____________ when all or most of its members have been instilled with a purpose and an intent to carry out their purpose, regardless of the consequences. [5.2.1 (B)]
A.an uprising
B.a protest
C.a mob
D.a demonstration


220.
R-35 5.2.2

In addition to the other elements of the offense of riot, there must be ______ or more participants present.
A.5
B.12
C.9
D.7



221.
R-36 5.2.1

A crowd can be classified as:
A.Large
B.Small
C.Casual
D.Supportive



222.
R-36 5.2.1

A cohesive crowd is defined as:
A.a group of persons with no unity or purpose and no leadership that will respond to directions given from police officers (shoppers and on-lookers)
B.they are assembled for some purpose and have leadership expressing an attitude such as political rallies or picket lines
C.they are usually assembled for some purpose and have positive leadership and can easily turn into a mob (usually high emotional tension)
D.usually assembled for a common purpose without leadership, they have a common interest but behave and think as individuals (spectators at a sporting event)



223.
R-36 5.2.1

An expressive crowd is defined as:
A.a group of persons with no unity or purpose and no leadership that will respond to directions given by police officers (shoppers and on-lookers)
B.they are assembled for some purpose and have leadership expressing an attitude such as a political rally or picket lines
C.they are usually assembled for some purpose and have positive leadership and can easily become a mob (usually a high emotional tension)
D.usually assembles for a common purpose without leadership, they have a common interest but behave and think as individuals (spectators at a sporting event)



224. A mob develops when:
A.one person in the large group has been instilled with a purpose and an intent carry out his purpose, regardless of the consequences
B.all or most of the members of the crowd have been instilled with a purpose and an intent to carry out their purpose , regardless of the consequence
C.they loose all leadership and purpose
D.there is any assembly of persons


225. Which of the following areas of a mob is usually the highest point of tension:
A.front
B.center
C.rear
D.front and center
E.rear and center


226. A Hazardous Material Event is one in which a hazardous material:
A.has been released into the environment
B.may be released into the environment
C.either has been or may be released into the environment
D.is being transported through a town or city


227. Which of the following is NOT a true statement concerning the effects of a hazardous material event?
A.it may cause the loss of the use of productive land that has been contaminated
B.it may cause the overcrowding of hospitals and health care facilities due to the exposure to a hazardous material
C.some substances cause little harm, while some may kill instantly
D.it has little effect on the operations of government entities since they are prepared to respond to such events


228. Which of the following would increase the likelihood of you being exposed to hazardous material at an event?
A.cool and clear conditions
B.heat and poor ventilation
C.warm with good ventilation
D.heat and good ventilation


229. Which of the following would NOT be used to obtain on-site information about a hazardous material being transported?
A.call the shipper at the point-of-origin
B.read placards
C.interview the person(s) transporting it
D.all of these could be used to obtain on-site information


230. The first step you should take in using the Incident Management System is:
A.recognize and identify the presence of a hazardous material
B.determine additional resources needed
C.control the risk by establishing perimeters around the event
D.establish a command structure to effectively handle the event


231. Which of the following procedures should you use to safeguard lives at a haz-mat event?
A.immediately start the clean-up of the material
B.leave your patrol vehicle open to allow the toxic fumes to vent through your vehicle rather than sit
C.remain upwind from the affected area
D.shut off all public notification so that you do not panic those still in the area


232. Which of the following is NOT protective personal gear that should be worn at a haz-mat event?
A.a self contained breathing apparatus
B.chemically resistant rubber gloves, footwear, and eye protection
C.bunker gear
D.your standard uniform is sufficient protection for most events


233. The key to being successful in cross examination is being __________ and able to __________ the next question.
A.Well dressed/guess
B.Rude to the defense attorney/sarcastically answer
C.Prepared/anticipate
D.Organized/quash


234. Which of the following is an important rule for testifying in court?
A.never get angry on the witness stand
B.attempt to frustrate the defense attorney
C.impress the jury by answering questions using police lingo
D.shave before going to court


235. When unsure of the answer to a question, the officer testifying should reply:
A.I object
B.I don't remember
C.Don't ask me
D.None of your business
E.All of the above are appropriate replies


236. Which of the following does NOT demonstrate the value of a case folder?
A.It prevents the duplication of work
B.It is useful when consulting with the prosecutor and/or grand jury.
C.It replaces the officers own notes on the case
D.It makes the officer and the agency look efficient


237. What documentary information should be left out of the case folder?
A.The original report made from the officer's field notes
B.Photographs of the crime scene
C.Diagrams of the crime scene
D.The officer's field notes
E.All of the above should be included in the case folder


238. After the Prosecutor finishes their initial questioning, the Defense will begin_________by asking their initial questions.
A.direct examination
B.cross examination
C.redirect examination
D.recross examination


239. Which of the following is NOT an objective in conducting a crime scene search?
A.Determining what crime was committed
B.Determining how the crime was committed
C.obtaining written statements from possible witnesses
D.determine the who, how, when, and why the crime was committed


240. Which of the following is the worst method of searching?
A.Point to point
B.Strip
C.Quadrant
D.circular (or spiral)
E.Area


241. The primary objective of the first officer to arrive at a crime scene is (assuming the injured have been cared for):
A.Gather Evidence
B.Talk to witnesses
C.Protect the scene
D.Speak with the media


242. One way to insure whether you were the person who collected evidence is to:
A.Describe its appearance
B.Try to remember its appearance
C.Mark it with your initials and the case number
D.Take pictures of it


243. In determining which searching method to use, which of the following should NOT be considered.
A.The size and type of area
B.Who is in charge of the scene
C.The degree of thoroughness required in the search
D.the potential of recovering any evidence


244. The process which records transactions of evidence from person-to-person once it is acquired by a law enforcement agency is the:
A.point-to-point path of evidence
B.chain-of-custody
C.offense report
D.logging of evidence at the property office


245. Quadrant searches are commonly used in ____________ searches.
A.indoor
B.outdoor
C.both indoor and outdoor
D.aerial


246. A crime scene sketch is a drawing which represents the crime scene and supplements _____________.
A.The suspect's location
B.The chain of custody
C.The crime scene photography
D.The officer's notes


247. The most commonly used type of sketch is a:
A.Perspective sketch
B.Nude sketch
C.Projection sketch
D.Detailed sketch


248. The purpose of proper evidence packaging is:
A.To prevent the chain of custody from being broken
B.To supplement the crime scene sketch
C.To prevent breakage or contamination of evidence
D.To prevent blood or body fluids from running out of the package


249. A statement made by the accused who is unable to write must bear his mark and the mark must be witnessed by: (Sec V,E,2,d)
A.A person other than a peace officer
B.A peace officer
C.A Notary Public
D.Anyone can witness


250. Oral confessions are not allowed in evidence against the accused unless they meet which of the following rules:
A.The oral statement is recorded electronically
B.The accused is given the "Miranda" warning during the recording, prior to making the statement
C.all voices on the recording are identified
D.All of the above are necessary if a confession is recorded


251. An __________ is the systematic questioning of a person who has knowledge relevant to a criminal investigation.
A.inspection
B.interview
C.interrogation
D.inquisition


252. An __________ is the systematic questioning of a criminal suspect for the primary purpose of obtaining an admission of guilt.
A.inspection
B.interview
C.interrogation
D.inquisition


253. Witnesses should be separated from each other so that one witness's statement is not __________ by another witness.
A.ridiculed
B.contradicted
C.judged
D.influenced


254. A statement of an accused may only be used against them if:
A.it was made freely
B.it was made voluntarily
C.it was made freely and voluntarily without compulsion
D.it was material to the offense they are accused of committing


255. If you discover discrepancies in the interview of any person, you should:
A.make note of this in your report
B.make note of this in the statement that they sign
C.confront them with the discrepancies and allow them to explain or retract them
D.do nothing; it is not important for you to do anything during the interview except take notes or record it


256. The most common method for obtaining warrants and wanted information from other jurisdictions on the prisoner you are booking is:
A.Telephone calls to other agencies
B.The TCIC/NCIC system
C.Your own records division
D.None of the above


257. Which of the following is a reason for searching a prisoner during the booking procedure?
A.Safeguarding the prisoners personal property
B.Inmate security
C.Security of the facility
D.All of the above


258. You should __________ refer to precious metals or gems by their proper names when describing a prisoners property on a booking form.
A.Always
B.Never
C.Sometimes
D.All of the above
E.None of the above appropriately answer the question


259.
R-37 5.3.1D

Which of the following would not be considered as standard personal information to be included on a booking form?
A.Nickname(s)
B.Tattoos or scars
C.Sexual preference (and name of partner)
D.Marital status (and name of spouse)
E.All of the above should be included



260. ________________ is a lawful search for people or things useful in reconstructing the circumstances of an illegal act and the mental state accompanying it.
A.Criminal investigation
B.Crime scene search
C.Crime scene sketch
D.Instrumentation


261. Which of the following is NOT one of the goals of a criminal investigation?
A.effect a legal arrest
B.prepare the best case possible for prosecution
C.determine if a crime has been committed
D.clear the case so that the UCR statistics will indicate a high clearance rate


262. An investigator should be alert for all information that tends to ________ a suspect's involvement in an offense.
A.prove
B.disprove
C.both prove and disprove


263. Which of the following would be a duty of an officer in conducting a preliminary investigation?
A.protect the crime scene
B.record in field notes and with sketches all data about the crime
C.determine how the crime was committed
D.all of the above are a duty of an officer in conducting a preliminary investigation


264. Which of the following is not an element of the continuing or follow-up investigation?
A.analyze the legal significance of information or evidence
B.locate and arrest the perpetrator (suspect) if this has not been done during the preliminary investigation
C.determine how the crime was committed
D.prepare the case for prosecution and confer with the prosecutors


265. ___________ literally means "the body of the crime". It ordinarily includes two elements: the act and the criminal intent of the actor.
A.Habeas Corpus
B.Corpus Delicti
C.Criminal investigation
D.Evidence


266. ______________ is the state of a criminal case which, after the entire comparison and consideration of all the evidence, leaves the minds of jurors where they feel an abiding conviction, to a moral certainty, of the truth of the charge.
A.Probable cause
B.Criminal investigation
C.Reasonable doubt
D.Suspicion


267. The investigator must collect sufficient evidence of an accused person's guilt that will ____________ defense claims.
A.negate
B.substantiate
C.have no bearing on
D.improve


268. Which of the following is NOT a qualification of an investigator?
A.a working knowledge of social psychology
B.an extensive knowledge of criminal laws, rules of evidence, and knowledge of the people that commit crimes
C.a native intuition that allows them to solve a crime based on their instincts
D.a unusual ability for observation and recall


269. Which of the following statements is true about the professional thief?
A.the type of property taken is not an important clue
B.they are not concerned whether there are witnesses present when they commit their crime
C.they work alone and fence their own stolen property
D.storefront (or sting) operations work well in catching this type of criminal


270. The _____________ is motivated by profit, but does little planning or preparation to commit his crimes, and is usually interested in getting money for drugs.
A.robber
B.professional thief
C.semi-professional thief
D.white collar criminal


271. A/An ________________ homicide is one which usually follows child molestation, rape, or acts of sexual perversion.
A.anger killing
B.sex and sadism killing
C.triangle killing
D.random killing


272. Which of the following statements is true concerning assault crimes?
A.there is rarely any intent by the perpetrator to hurt or kill the victim
B.in many cases the victim knows the perpetrator
C.the victims seldom know the perpetrator
D.victims always want to prosecute the perpetrator


273. ____________________ is a criminal offense against a person or property which is motivated, in whole or part, by the offenders bias against race, religion, or ethnic origin.
A.A hate crime
B.An assault
C.A homicide
D.A verbal assault


274. _____________ is the dark blue discoloration which is observable on parts of the body which are lowest to the ground.
A.The China Syndrome
B.Rigor Mortis
C.Putrefaction
D.Post Mortem Lividity


275. Which of the following statements is not true concerning Rigor Mortis?
A.it starts at the neck and lower jaw and spreads downward
B.its presence or absence may help in determining the time of death
C.it disappears after approximately 36 hours
D.it never disappears once it begins


276. A ____________ is the altering of a vehicle's identity by placing the serial number (VIN) of a total loss car onto a stolen car.
A.A gray market vehicle
B.An insurance fraud
C.A salvage switch
D.A stripped vehicle


277. It is important that, before completing an auto theft report, the officer:
A.obtain pictures of the stolen vehicle
B.check to determine if the vehicle has been repossessed or impounded
C.rented by the complaining party
D.determine if the vehicle was a gray market vehicle


278. A person who intentionally or knowingly alters or removes an identification number on a motor vehicle has:
A.committed no crime
B.committed a criminal offense (Tampering With Identification Numbers)
C.committed a civil offense
D.committed a traffic offense (Altering or Tampering With a VIN)


279. Which of the following statements regarding putrefaction is not true?
A.it is what happens in the body when the muscles begin to stiffen
B.it is the decomposition of the body's tissues
C.its onset and rate are influenced by the temperature of the environment
D.it may cause bloating of the body and green discoloration of the abdominal area


280. Which of the following would give strong presumptive evidence of suicide if a hand of a deceased person is found clutching a weapon?
A.rigor mortis
B.putrefication
C.cadaveric spasm
D.post mortem lividity



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